Chrisalias
12-01-2010, 04:38 PM
I realize that this might sound like a stupid question but I am asking because I have begun to experience hair loss again after 11 years of almost no hair loss.
I started taking Propecia in 1999 and have taken it regularly ever since...with good results.
18 months ago I switched to Proscar(Finasteride) for financial reasons. I try to cut them into thirds so in theory I'm getting about 1.5 mgs.
Coincidentally or not, I have recently noticed more hair loss on top.
My thinking is that it must just be coincidence....Proscar in thirds...vs. Propecia ?
There should be no difference
Am I missing something here ?
I started taking Propecia in 1999 and have taken it regularly ever since...with good results.
18 months ago I switched to Proscar(Finasteride) for financial reasons. I try to cut them into thirds so in theory I'm getting about 1.5 mgs.
Coincidentally or not, I have recently noticed more hair loss on top.
My thinking is that it must just be coincidence....Proscar in thirds...vs. Propecia ?
There should be no difference
Am I missing something here ?