ohnolosingit
07-18-2009, 09:30 AM
I have asked Dr. R a question and he hasn't answered it.
It has been said many times by Dr. R and Dr. B that it is completely normal to have some degree of miniaturization in the donor areas. I think it was like 10-15%.
My questions is regarding a male with what I believe to be Chronic TE. If this person represents with 30% whole head miniaturization at 40 and diagnosed as non-dupa than how can doctors eliminate CTE as a possible diagnosis. Meaning if you are using the idea that the % of hairs that are miniaturized to diagnosis DUPA or FPB then would it make sense if someone who may fall into the normal % of miniaturization on sides and back would have an LARGE increase of the ratio of miniaturized hair since they have lost a significant amount of hair due to a CTE. This would effected the ratio greatly, thus giving the wrong diagnosis of a higher Min% when in reality there is normal min% but just less hair due to other causes to determine the ratio.
Thanks
It has been said many times by Dr. R and Dr. B that it is completely normal to have some degree of miniaturization in the donor areas. I think it was like 10-15%.
My questions is regarding a male with what I believe to be Chronic TE. If this person represents with 30% whole head miniaturization at 40 and diagnosed as non-dupa than how can doctors eliminate CTE as a possible diagnosis. Meaning if you are using the idea that the % of hairs that are miniaturized to diagnosis DUPA or FPB then would it make sense if someone who may fall into the normal % of miniaturization on sides and back would have an LARGE increase of the ratio of miniaturized hair since they have lost a significant amount of hair due to a CTE. This would effected the ratio greatly, thus giving the wrong diagnosis of a higher Min% when in reality there is normal min% but just less hair due to other causes to determine the ratio.
Thanks